Approved at the meeting of UMS faculty
Nbsp;
Ministry of Education and Science of the Republic of Kazakhstan
West Kazakhstan State University named M. Utemisov
Natural-geographic faculty
Department of Biology and ecology
Cipher, specialty 5В011300- “Biology”
The subject “Molecular biology”
Test
1. Targeting of a particular mRNA by a miRNA would likely result in:
A. A gene knockout
B. An alternatively spliced product
C. A gene knockdown
D. Translational activation
E. An edited RNA product
F.Helicase
G.Exonuclease
H. 3 splice site
2. Assuming these are human chromosomes, what would the ‘n’ and ‘c’ of the cell be when the chromosomes were lined up as shown (side by side)?
A. 1n, 1c
B. 1n, 2c
C. 2n, 2c
D. 2n, 4c
E. 4n, 4c
F.5n, 6c
G.4n, 5c
H.2n, 4n
3. 4. During gametogenesis, if a cross over were to occur on the p arm of these chromosomes, in what phase would the alleles G and g segregate?
A. Anaphase of mitosis
B. Anaphase of meiosis I
C. Interphase of meiosis II
D. Anaphase of meiosis II
E. They would not segregate
F. Radiation
G. Interphase
H. Anaphase of meiosis
4. The metaphase plate is also known as the equatorial plate. In what process does this association of terms not hold true (the exception to the rule)?
A. Mitotic divisions to maintain spermatogonia
B. Meiotic divisions in spermatogenesis
C. Mitotic divisions to maintain oogonia
D. Meiotic divisions in oogenesis
E. Complementary base pairing
F.Exonuclease
G. Terminator
H. Rho
5. What is the most likely consequence of a mutation at the position indicated by the arrow in the above schematic of an hnRNA?
A. None; this region has no possible function
B. Aberrant splicing of the RNA
C. Altered response to regulatory factors
D. The mRNA would be improperly capped
E. The mRNA would be unstable and prone to degradation
F. The mRNA would be unstable
G. Aberrant splicing
H. no possible function
6. This is an example of what level of gene regulation?
A. Transcriptional
B. RNA stability/turnover
C. Translational
D. Post-translational
E. Chromatin packing
F. Release factors
G. Enhancer
H. A promoter
7. The estrogen responsive element would be classified as what kind of signal?
A. core promoter element
B. operator
C. silencer
D. enhancer
E. TATA box
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F. 3 splice site
G. Branch A point
H.Hairpoon loops
8. The estrogen receptor can only bind DNA when in complex with the molecule estradiol. This protein complex which then affects expression of nearby genes would be considered:
A. An alternative sigma factor
B. A specific transcription factor
C. A general transcription factor
D. An enhancer sequence
E. A promoter
F. Complementary base pairing
G. GTP
H. DNA ligase
9. What would you predict about the structure of the estrogen receptor with estradiol bound to it?
A. It would be a single domain protein with DNA binding capacity
B. It would be a single domain protein with regulatory function
C. It would have to be able to bind directly to RNAPII
D. It would be a multidomain protein with DNA binding and regulatory functions
E. It would be a multidomain protein with RNA polymerase and regulatory functions
F. The amino acid sequence of mucinase would be altered
G. Transcription termination of the mucinase gene would be defective
H. RNAP and TATA box sequence
10. The sequence of an estrogen responsive element is given below. What would be the most likely consequence of insertion of this sequence approximately 200 bases upstream (-200) of the +1 transcription initiation site of the gene encoding the enzyme mucinase?
5’- TGGTCAGGCTGGCT-3’
A. The expression of mucinase would become estrogen responsive
B. Basal expression of mucinase would increase
C. The mucinase protein would be less stable
D. The amino acid sequence of mucinase would be altered
E. Transcription termination of the mucinase gene would be defective
F. It would be a single domain protein with regulatory function
G. RNAP and TATA box sequence
H. It would be a single domain protein with DNA binding capacity
11. What cellular machinery (proteins/RNAs) would be required to generate the RNA depicted above?
A. RNAP II and σ (sigma) factor
B. -10, -35 box sequences and 5.8 S rRNA
C. RNAP and TATA box sequence
D. σ (sigma) factor and RNAP
E. RNAP II and TFII-D
F. Proofread newly synthesized RNA
G. Proofread newly synthesized RNA
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H. Site specific proteolysis
12. What is the purpose of RNA editing in different cells/tissues?
A. Increase effective genetic diversity
B. Repair DNA damage
C. Provide catalytic activity to RNA
D. Proofread newly synthesized RNA
E. Process RNA from inactive to an active form
F. Phosphorylation
G. Hydroxylation
H. Acetylation
13. Which post-translational modification is most commonly used to alter the activity of enzymes in response to hormones such as glucagon?
A. Acetylation
B. Site specific proteolysis
C. Hydroxylation
D. Phosphorylation
E. Glycosylation
F. Hydroxylation
G. Pyrimidine dimers
H. DNA glycosylase
14. Which form of DNA damage is least likely to be encountered on a day to day basis?
A. Double strand breaks
B. Hydroxylation
C. Deamination
D. Pyrimidine dimers
E. Tautomerization
F. DNA methyltransferase 1
G. Site specific proteolysis
H. Acetylation
15. During DNA replication, the primers used for leading and lagging strand initiation must be removed by what kind of enzymatic activity?
A. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease
B. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease
C. 3’ to 5’ endonuclease
D. 5’ to 3’ endonuclease
E. DNA glycosylase
F. Presence of promoters
G. Addition of a 5’cap
H. Alternative sigma factors
16. After replication, the enzymes of the mismatch repair pathway are able to identify and repair mismatched bases in the newly synthesized DNA strand due to the delay in the activity of what enzyme(s)?
A. DNA methyltransferase 1
B. DNA methyltransferase 2
C. DNA methyltransferase 3A & 3B
D. DNA ligase
E. Uracil DNA glycosylase
F. Addition of a 5’cap
G. Intron removal to create an ORF
H. Presence of promoters
17. Which of the following processing events occurs in the generation of mature tRNA molecules?
A. Polyadenylation at the 3’ end
B. Addition of a 5’cap
C. Covalent modification of bases
D. Intron removal to create an ORF
E. Cleavage of multiple functional molecules from a larger precursor
F. D. Alternative sigma factors
G. Each molecule folds into a common 3D structure for function
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H. Presence of promoters
18. Which of the following aspects of gene regulation is unique to eukaryotes?
A. Presence of promoters
B. Transcriptional repressor proteins
C. Sequence-specific DNA binding proteins
D. Alternative sigma factors
E. Covalent modification of histone proteins
F. 5’ position of cytosine in a CpG dinucleotide
G. The sequence will form an amphipathic helix.
H. The sequence will contain many arginine and lysine residues.
19. Which statement about rRNA molecules is true?
A. The presence of modified nucleotides predominantly determines structure
B. Each molecule folds into a common 3D structure for function
C. They undergo extensive processing to add a cap and poly A tail
D. They function as complex protein:RNA complexes
E. They are the enzymatic components of splicing complexes
F. The sequence will contain saccharide residues in place of amino acids.
G. 5’ position of cytosine in a CpG dinucleotide
H. variations in terminal glycosylation
20. Translation of the mRNA encoding the collagen polypeptide takes place on the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Knowing where collagen polypeptides must ultimately end up, you would predict which of the following features for the first 20 amino acids of the just-translated collagen polypeptide?
A. The sequence will form an amphipathic helix.
B. The sequence will contain many hydrophobic residues.
C. The sequence will contain many arginine and lysine residues.
D. The sequence will contain leucine residues with requisite spacing.
E. The sequence will contain saccharide residues in place of amino acids.
F. This gene uses an alternative sigma factor
G. alternative splicing
H. This gene uses an alternative sigma factor
21. Patients with Rett syndrome are deficient in the protein MECP2 (Methyl CpG Binding Protein 2) which is involved in gene silencing in neuronal cells. To what specific substrate does this protein bind?
A. 5’ position of cytosine in a CpG dinucleotide
B. C5 position of cytosine in a CG base pair
C. C5 position of cytosine in a CpG dinucleotide
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D. 5’ position of guanosine in a CG base pair
E. C5 position of guanosine in a CpG dinucleotide
F. This gene uses an alternative sigma factor
G. Altered promoter sequences
H. variations in terminal glycosylation
22. What molecular mechanism most likely accounts for this phenomenon?
A. This region is deleted from the maternal chromosome by transposons
B. This region has histones that are highly acetylated
C. This region is highly methylated on the maternal chromosome
D. Maternal chromosome 1 is inactivated
E. This gene uses an alternative sigma factor
F. Germ cells undergo extensive demethylation beginning at puberty
G. All copies of the noey2 gene with a male (paternal) imprint will be silenced
H. variations in terminal glycosylation
23. In a healthy female of 30 weeks gestation, what would be the expected imprinting pattern of the noey2 gene?
A. All copies of the noey2 gene will have a female (maternal) imprint
B. One copy of the noey2 gene will have a female (maternal) imprint in her somatic cells
C. All copies of the noey2 gene will reset after birth to have a female (maternal) imprint
D. One copy of the noey2 gene will have a male (paternal) imprint in her germ cells
E. All copies of the noey2 gene with a male (paternal) imprint will be silenced
F. variations in terminal glycosylation
G. Altered promoter sequences
H. Recruitment of transcription factors
24. The histone modification of sumoylation usually results in:
A. Increased acetylation and ubiquinylation of other histones
B. Gene activation
C. Gene silencing
D. Recruitment of transcription factors
E. Altered promoter sequences
F. RNA polymerase I
G. Topoisomerase
H. Helicase
25. Which statement about epigenetic reprogramming is true?
A. Somatic cells undergo extensive demethylationpostnatally (newborn period)
B. Somatic cells erase genomic imprints to reestablish totipotency
C. Germ cells of females only erase and reestablish genomic imprints in the embryonic period
D. Somatic cells do not erase inherited genomic imprints
E. Germ cells undergo extensive demethylation beginning at puberty
F. peptide bond formation
G. Helicase
H. Gene silencing
26. Cancer cells avoid replicative senescence by maintaining integrity of their chromosome ends through increased activity of:
A. Topoisomerase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. RNA polymerase I
E. Telomerase
F. transposition
G. variations in terminal glycosylation
H transposition
27. The nucleotide sequence surrounding the translation start site for a protein is shown below. Deamination of an adenine nucleotide in the DNA corresponding to the third codon would lead to which kind of mutation?
A. Missense
B. Nonsense
C. Silent
D. Frameshift
F. transposition
G. variations in terminal glycosylation
H. Helicase
28. The mRNA for the Alzheimer-related gene is 2400 nucleotides long when isolated from neurons, but 2900 nucleotides long when isolated from glial cells. Genomic DNAs isolated from the two cell types show the identical nucleotide sequence. Which of the following mechanisms best accounts for the difference in the sizes of the mRNAs?
A. site-specific recombination
B. transposition
C. alternative splicing
D. post-translational modification
E. variations in terminal glycosylation
F. Topoisomerase
G. peptide bond formation
H. Helicase
29. There are 20 primary amino acids specified by the genetic code. Which step in the translation process requires a separate and specific enzyme for each amino acid?
A. joining an individual amino acid to its specific tRNA
B. delivering aminoacyl-tRNAs to the ribosome
C. initiating translation
D. peptide bond formation
E. translocation of the ribosome to the next codon along the mRNA
F. RNA polymerase I
G. The sequence will form an amphipathic helix.
H. transposition
30. During translation of a protein in a human liver cell, how will the initiation codon be recognized?
A. The small ribosomal subunit will scan from the 5’ end to the first start codon.
B. Small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) will recognize a consensus sequence at the start codon.
C. The 16S rRNA will form basepairs with a sequence near the start codon.
D. The first three nucleotides at the 5’ end will be used as the start codon.
E. The mRNA will have only one codon that can be recognized by a methionine tRNA
F. Gene silencing
G. Somatic cells erase genomic imprints to reestablish totipotency
H. All copies of the noey2 gene will reset after birth to have a female (maternal) imprint
Approved at faculty meeting
Protocol № __ from “ _” ____________ 2017
Head the Department : ____________________ Alzhanova B. S
Approved at the meeting of UMS faculty
Protocol № __ from “_” _____________ 2017
The chair of the EMC faculty ____________ Zharoeva A. G
Answer
1-D
2-C
3-B
4-C
5-E
6-A
7-A
8-B
9-C
10-C
11-C
12-D
13-B
14-D
15-A
16-A
17-A
18-A
19-B
20-B
21-C
22-F
23-A
24-B
25-C
26-D
27-A
28-D
29-A
30-A
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